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1 vote
0 answers
119 views

Intuition behind right-inverse of map from Johnson-Lindenstrauss Lemma

The Johnson–Lindenstrauss lemma states that for every $n$-point subset $X$ of $\mathbb{R}^d$ and each $0<\varepsilon\le 1$, there is a linear map $f:\mathbb{R}^d\to\mathbb{R}^{O(\log(n)/\varepsilon^...
ABIM's user avatar
  • 5,079
2 votes
0 answers
88 views

Finite approximations to the Kuratowski/Fréchet embedding

Let $(X,d)$ be a compact doubling metric space with doubling constant $C>0$. Let $\{\mathbb{X}_n\}_{n=0}^{\infty}$ be a sequences of finite subsets of $X$ with $$ \left\{B\left(x_k,\frac1{n}\right)...
Carlos_Petterson's user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
382 views

Why $(\mathrm{Lip}([0,1]^2))^*$ is finitely representable in 1-Wasserstein space over the plane?

In "Snowflake universality of Wasserstein spaces"" by Alexandr Andoni, Assaf Naor, and Ofer Neiman, they have the following notation: For a metric space X they write $\mathcal{P}_1(X)$ ...
Vladimir Zolotov's user avatar
3 votes
0 answers
103 views

"Hoelder conjugate" version of the Johnson-Lindenstrauss transform

A variation of the well-known Johnson-Lindenstrauss transform (JLT) asserts that for $x_1,\ldots,x_m\in\mathbb{R}^n$ there exists a linear transformation $A:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}^k$ with $k=\...
user134977's user avatar
12 votes
1 answer
567 views

Is $\ell_p$ $(1<p<\infty)$ finitely isometrically distortable?

Let $Y$ be a Banach space isomorphic to $\ell_p$, $1<p<\infty$. Is it true that any finite subset of $\ell_p$ is isometric to some finite subset of $Y$? It seems to me that it is an interesting ...
Mikhail Ostrovskii's user avatar
17 votes
0 answers
482 views

Large almost equilateral sets in finite-dimensional Banach spaces

Question: Does there exist a function $C:~(0,1)\to (0,\infty)$ such that for each $\varepsilon\in(0,1)$ every Banach space $X$ of dimension $\ge C(\varepsilon)\log n$ contains an $n$-point set $\{x_i\...
Mikhail Ostrovskii's user avatar