Skip to main content
10 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jun 28, 2021 at 15:15 comment added red_trumpet Two notes: (1) Claire Voisin also touches that topic briefly in Hodge Theory and Complex Algebraic Geometry, I, p.226-228. (2) I think the Maurer-Cartan equation should be $\bar\partial \phi(t) + \frac 1 2 [\phi(t), \phi(t)] = 0$. See this question for my reasoning.
May 21, 2014 at 9:02 comment added Koushik good point. i myself was wondering the same thing
Dec 22, 2013 at 5:06 comment added Michael Albanese @yaa09d: There was a function $\phi(t)$ and we took its power series. We have $\phi_0 = 0$ as $\phi(0) = 0$.
Dec 9, 2013 at 9:22 comment added yaa09d I am just wondering where the power series presentation of $\phi(t)$ came from? And why $\phi_0=0$?
Jan 10, 2013 at 8:44 history edited Michael Albanese CC BY-SA 3.0
added 72 characters in body
Jun 20, 2012 at 7:37 vote accept Michael Albanese
Jun 18, 2012 at 17:44 answer added Peter Dalakov timeline score: 24
Jun 18, 2012 at 16:09 comment added YangMills Another book that discusses this approach in detail is "Calabi-Yau Manifolds and Related Geometries" by Gross-Huybrechts-Joyce, chapter 2, from page 73.
Jun 18, 2012 at 16:05 history edited Michael Albanese
Deleted complex variables tag and added algebraic geometry tag.
Jun 18, 2012 at 15:56 history asked Michael Albanese CC BY-SA 3.0