Timeline for Origin of the term "localization" for the localization of a ring
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 29, 2010 at 11:11 | comment | added | Boyarsky | @Martin: localizing at a multiplicative set containing zero divisors (as in your example!) was not introduced until Uzkov around 1940's; even Chevalley in 1943 didn't use such generality, according to Emerton's reference. Your belief that such an equality was known "long before Zariski" seems to be a wild guess, moreover contrary to the historical evidence on the algebra side. Is there any evidence for it? Why would pre-Zariski geometers or function theorists even want such a result? The ring of germs is a quotient of $C^{\infty}(M)$, so why would they bother with abstract localization? | |
| Apr 20, 2010 at 17:10 | comment | added | Martin Brandenburg | Right . | |
| Apr 20, 2010 at 16:58 | comment | added | Ben Webster♦ | Martin- This is a history question, and yet your answer doesn't cite any sources. You seem to just be saying it's equally possible that the term came from differential geometry. | |
| Apr 20, 2010 at 9:04 | history | answered | Martin Brandenburg | CC BY-SA 2.5 |