User Only True God - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange

21 votes

6 answers

6k views

Is God's "Be fruitful and multiply" at Genesis 1:28 a blessing or commandment?

asked Jun 13, 2022 at 18:20

16 votes

11 answers

9k views

At John 5:18, did Jesus break the Sabbath?

asked May 31, 2022 at 18:26

12 votes

8 answers

9k views

To Jews in Jesus' time, what did "the Son of Man" mean?

asked Jun 4, 2022 at 0:23

10 votes

6 answers

3k views

Is there any textual evidence in the Gospels that Jesus thought we should pray to Jesus? [closed]

asked Sep 16, 2020 at 22:14

9 votes

6 answers

1k views

Why is 'egeneto' at John 1:14 translated differently than 'egeneto' at John 1:6?

asked Jul 6, 2022 at 18:16

8 votes

6 answers

6k views

Would a man looking at his own wife 'to desire her' be committing adultery according to Jesus at Matthew 5:28?

asked Mar 8, 2021 at 22:43

7 votes

9 answers

2k views

Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?

asked Apr 6, 2021 at 18:33

6 votes

4 answers

482 views

How do we reconcile John 5:18 with Psalm 2:7?

asked May 12, 2021 at 16:28

6 votes

10 answers

1k views

To which beginning is the word 'beginning' (arche) referring in the Gospel of John, outside of the prologue?

asked Aug 13, 2022 at 18:51

6 votes

4 answers

215 views

What clues from John's general usage of 'the word' (or similar terms) help us to understand the referent of 'the word' in John's prologue?

asked Mar 12, 2023 at 18:08

5 votes

2 answers

273 views

What are the arguments for and against adding an 'as' in Exodus 4:16's "Moses shall be (as) God to Aaron"?

asked Nov 8, 2022 at 19:31

5 votes

9 answers

1k views

Are there contextual cues which suggest Jesus calming the storm does not require Jesus to be God Almighty?

asked Nov 14, 2022 at 5:47

5 votes

3 answers

376 views

Why is theon translated as 'God' usually for John 10:33 and 'a god' for Acts 28:6?

asked Apr 7, 2021 at 4:54

5 votes

5 answers

3k views

In John 20:28, why does Thomas refer to God as 'my' God?

asked Feb 18, 2021 at 19:26

5 votes

6 answers

1k views

At Luke 4:21, would Jesus' audience have understood him to be claiming to be the Christ, the Son of God?

asked Jun 7, 2022 at 6:51

5 votes

3 answers

650 views

What is the argument that Jesus' 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 should be translated as 'I am he' instead of 'I am'? [duplicate]

asked Jun 9, 2022 at 0:13

5 votes

3 answers

720 views

If Jesus broke the Sabbath at John 5:18, why does He say "Therefore it is lawful to do good on the Sabbath" at Matthew 12:12?

asked Jun 10, 2022 at 6:01

4 votes

4 answers

3k views

Does Jesus ever directly and explicitly claim to be the Messiah (the Christ) in public, before his trial with the Sanhedrin? [closed]

asked Jun 10, 2022 at 19:22

4 votes

2 answers

92 views

Is there anything we can infer about Joseph's age from the use of 'man' to describe him in Luke?

asked Jun 17, 2021 at 18:03

4 votes

2 answers

182 views

Why does Jesus respond to a request about his Kingdom at Luke 23:42 by talking about Paradise in Luke 23:43?

asked Mar 3, 2021 at 18:33

4 votes

2 answers

361 views

Why doesn't Jesus mention requiring a human blood sacrifice to be forgiven?

asked Mar 13, 2021 at 1:00

4 votes

1 answer

498 views

When Jesus tells Thomas to reach out his hand and 'put it into' his side, was he wearing clothing covering his side?

asked Feb 17, 2021 at 22:16

4 votes

4 answers

1k views

Were the magi in Matthew 2 worshipping Jesus as God or King?

asked Apr 15, 2021 at 18:15

4 votes

3 answers

390 views

What does Jesus mean by 'born' at John 18:37?

asked Dec 10, 2022 at 19:24

4 votes

4 answers

696 views

Does 'the foundation of the world' refer to the creation of the universe or something else at John 17:24?

asked Jan 17, 2023 at 19:13

4 votes

2 answers

697 views

How is the word 'world' (kosmos) used in John's Gospel outside of the prologue?

asked Aug 15, 2022 at 18:26

3 votes

5 answers

1k views

Is God worried about Adam eating once or in an on-going pattern from the Tree of Life at Genesis 3:22?

asked Nov 3, 2022 at 18:29

3 votes

5 answers

801 views

Outside of John 8:58, how is the term 'genesthai' used by the author John when it comes to timing of what the verb is describing?

asked Nov 4, 2022 at 19:13

3 votes

1 answer

835 views

How is the Greek to be understood with regards to 'only' at Mark 13:32's final clause, "but only the Father"?

asked Feb 23, 2023 at 18:47

3 votes

5 answers

3k views

Why is Jude 1:5 translated 'Jesus' instead of 'Joshua'?

asked Apr 10, 2023 at 18:58

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53 Questions

Is God's "Be fruitful and multiply" at Genesis 1:28 a blessing or commandment?

At John 5:18, did Jesus break the Sabbath?

To Jews in Jesus' time, what did "the Son of Man" mean?

Is there any textual evidence in the Gospels that Jesus thought we should pray to Jesus? [closed]

Why is 'egeneto' at John 1:14 translated differently than 'egeneto' at John 1:6?

Would a man looking at his own wife 'to desire her' be committing adultery according to Jesus at Matthew 5:28?

Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?

How do we reconcile John 5:18 with Psalm 2:7?

To which beginning is the word 'beginning' (arche) referring in the Gospel of John, outside of the prologue?

What clues from John's general usage of 'the word' (or similar terms) help us to understand the referent of 'the word' in John's prologue?

What are the arguments for and against adding an 'as' in Exodus 4:16's "Moses shall be (as) God to Aaron"?

Are there contextual cues which suggest Jesus calming the storm does not require Jesus to be God Almighty?

Why is theon translated as 'God' usually for John 10:33 and 'a god' for Acts 28:6?

In John 20:28, why does Thomas refer to God as 'my' God?

At Luke 4:21, would Jesus' audience have understood him to be claiming to be the Christ, the Son of God?

What is the argument that Jesus' 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 should be translated as 'I am he' instead of 'I am'? [duplicate]

If Jesus broke the Sabbath at John 5:18, why does He say "Therefore it is lawful to do good on the Sabbath" at Matthew 12:12?

Does Jesus ever directly and explicitly claim to be the Messiah (the Christ) in public, before his trial with the Sanhedrin? [closed]

Is there anything we can infer about Joseph's age from the use of 'man' to describe him in Luke?

Why does Jesus respond to a request about his Kingdom at Luke 23:42 by talking about Paradise in Luke 23:43?

Why doesn't Jesus mention requiring a human blood sacrifice to be forgiven?

When Jesus tells Thomas to reach out his hand and 'put it into' his side, was he wearing clothing covering his side?

Were the magi in Matthew 2 worshipping Jesus as God or King?

What does Jesus mean by 'born' at John 18:37?

Does 'the foundation of the world' refer to the creation of the universe or something else at John 17:24?

How is the word 'world' (kosmos) used in John's Gospel outside of the prologue?

Is God worried about Adam eating once or in an on-going pattern from the Tree of Life at Genesis 3:22?

Outside of John 8:58, how is the term 'genesthai' used by the author John when it comes to timing of what the verb is describing?

How is the Greek to be understood with regards to 'only' at Mark 13:32's final clause, "but only the Father"?

Why is Jude 1:5 translated 'Jesus' instead of 'Joshua'?