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Sep 9, 2020 at 11:17 history closed Edwin Ashworth
KillingTime
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Aug 26, 2020 at 18:28 answer added Jason Bassford timeline score: 0
Aug 26, 2020 at 18:13 comment added Edwin Ashworth I can't see any problem in restating the caveat in a footnote. This is surely merely a style matter. That's not to say that some institutions won't have in-house guidelines they expect to be slavishly followed. For those of us in the free world, a common-sense approach, balancing immediate-context clarity against making the footnote unwieldy, makes sense.
Aug 26, 2020 at 17:53 comment added Nosajimiki @JasonBassford I added an example of a parenthetical footnote that re-clarifies the context. So, if you read the first footnote by itself, it becomes a logically false statement without the context of the body text. If you read the second example, it remains logically true when read by itself. My question is if you need to re-clarify the context inside of the footnote for a reader to understand it as logically true.
Aug 26, 2020 at 17:50 review Close votes
Sep 9, 2020 at 11:17
Aug 26, 2020 at 17:45 history edited Nosajimiki CC BY-SA 4.0
added 147 characters in body
Aug 26, 2020 at 17:30 comment added Jason Bassford Unless it's a citation, how can a footnote not rely on context from the main text? A footnote would be meaningless if it didn't tie back to the main text in some way. Suppose I added a footnote to what I just typed, and it contained the word Spam. It wouldn't make sense because there would be no context for it in what had come before. Or, in other words, to add context, you have to reference the existing context. So, I'm not sure what you're actually saying or asking. Can you provide a counter-example for comparison that doesn't do what you think is inappropriate?
Aug 26, 2020 at 17:22 history asked Nosajimiki CC BY-SA 4.0